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What is the primary purpose of Texas Insurance Code Chapter 6002 (fire alarm licensing law)?

A. To promote business opportunities in the fire alarm industry.
B. To safeguard lives and property by regulating fire alarm planning, installation, and related activities. ✓
C. To standardize insurance rates for properties with fire alarms.
D. To fund local fire departments through licensing fees.

Chapter 6002 exists mainly to protect lives and property by regulating who can plan, install, service, monitor, and certify fire alarm systems, and by controlling the types of devices that can be used.

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Under Chapter 6002, what is a “fire alarm device”?

A. Any electrical apparatus used by firefighters.
B. A component of a sprinkler system.
C. Any device capable of warning of fire or combustion through audible or visible means. ✓
D. A tool used to install fire alarm systems.

A fire alarm device is broadly defined as any device that can warn of fire or combustion through audible or visible signals, such as smoke detectors, horns, buzzers, and strobes.

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What is a Fire Alarm Planning Superintendent (APS) authorized to do under Texas law?

A. Only install residential smoke alarms.
B. Plan fire alarm or detection systems and certify that the plans meet code standards. ✓
C. Perform central station monitoring without a license.
D. Conduct inspections for the fire department.

The APS is the system designer; they prepare fire alarm plans and certify that the design complies with applicable NFPA standards and state rules. They are not primarily installers or monitors.

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Which best describes the role of a licensed Fire Alarm Technician (FAL) under Chapter 6002?

A. A person who designs alarm systems for large industrial sites.
B. A technician who inspects and certifies installed fire alarm systems or services/maintains systems and certifies the work meets standards. ✓
C. A firefighter trained to repair alarm panels.
D. An individual who only monitors alarm signals.

A Fire Alarm Technician’s job is to install, inspect, test, service, and certify fire alarm systems to make sure they meet legal and code requirements. Planning and design are done by APS/RAS/PE.

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What must a company have to legally engage in fire alarm installation or monitoring in Texas?

A. Only a technician license held by the owner.
B. Registration with the local fire department only.
C. A Texas Fire Alarm Certificate of Registration (ACR) issued by the State Fire Marshal’s Office. ✓
D. Nothing additional if all employees are individually licensed.

Any firm that plans, certifies, installs, services, or monitors fire alarm systems must hold a Certificate of Registration (ACR) from the State Fire Marshal, even if its employees are licensed.

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When is a Branch Office Certificate of Registration required for a fire alarm firm?

A. For any project outside the company’s home county.
B. Only if the company has more than 10 employees.
C. For each separate office location of a registered firm, except offices that only do single‑station device work. ✓
D. Branch certificates are never required.

Each separate office location doing regular fire alarm business must have its own branch office registration, unless that office only deals with stand‑alone residentialtype devices.

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What is the minimum liability insurance coverage an alarm company must maintain to obtain or renew an ACR (unless changed by rule)?

A. $50,000 per occurrence / $100,000 aggregate.
B. $100,000 per occurrence for bodily injury and property damage, with a $300,000 aggregate annual total. ✓
C. $500,000 per occurrence / $1,000,000 aggregate.
D. Insurance is not required.

A registered firm must carry general liability insurance of at least $100,000 per occurrence and $300,000 aggregate for bodily injury and property damage to protect the public from losses.

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Which staffing requirement is TRUE for a registered fire alarm firm in Texas?

A. No licensed employees are required if the firm is registered.
B. The firm must employ only certified firefighters.
C. The firm must employ at least one licensed FAL, RAS, or APS. ✓
D. All employees must hold an APS license.

Each registered firm must have at least one properly licensed individual (FAL, RAS, or APS) to be responsible for the fire alarm work that the company performs.

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Can a licensed individual perform fire alarm services independently without working for a registered firm?

A. Yes, a personal license allows totally independent practice.
B. No – they must be an employee or agent of a registered firm. ✓
C. Yes, but only on residential projects.
D. Yes, if they notify the State Fire Marshal.

A personal license by itself does not authorize independent business operations; the licensee must work under or represent a firm that holds a valid ACR.

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Who is NOT required to hold a fire alarm license or registration under Chapter 6002?

A. A homeowner installing a smoke detector in their own single‑family home. ✓
B. A person selling and installing fire alarms for profit.
C. A company that designs and certifies commercial fire alarm systems.
D. An electrician installing commercial fire alarm systems.

A homeowner working on their own single‑family residence is exempt. Anyone providing alarm services to others for compensation must be licensed/registered unless a specific exemption applies.

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When is a licensed electrician exempt from needing a fire alarm license for smoke detector work?

A. Electricians are always exempt.
B. When installing single- or multiple‑station residential detectors (not panel-connected or off‑premises signaling) in accordance with NFPA 72. ✓
C. Only if they have a burglar alarm license.
D. Never; they must always have a fire alarm license.

Electricians may install stand‑alone household smoke alarms in dwellings without a fire alarm license, as long as the devices are not part of a control panel system or transmitting offsite.

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Which action is illegal without proper fire alarm licensing or registration?

A. Changing batteries in your own smoke detector.
B. Planning, selling, installing, or servicing a fire alarm system for the public without the required license or ACR. ✓
C. Advertising fire alarm services on social media.
D. Testing a system under supervision of a licensee.

Any commercial fire alarm work for others (planning, installing, servicing, monitoring, etc.) requires appropriate licensing and registration; doing so without it is a violation.

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Absent a waiver, which exams must an applicant pass to obtain a Fire Alarm Technician (FAL) license?

A. Only the technical exam.
B. Only the statutes and rules exam.
C. Both the Fire Alarm Statutes & Rules exam (TFM11) and Fire Alarm Technical exam (TFM12). ✓
D. No exam if they complete a course.

The FAL requires passing two state exams: one covering Texas laws and rules (TFM11) and one covering technical fire alarm knowledge (TFM12).

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The Texas Fire Alarm Technical exam (TFM12) can be waived if the applicant holds which credential?

A. Texas journeyman electrician license.
B. NICET Level II (or ESA Level II) in fire alarm systems. ✓
C. Fire inspector certification.
D. Any engineering degree.

Holding a NICET Level II (or ESA Level II) fire alarm certification allows the technical exam requirement to be waived because it demonstrates comparable technical competency.

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What is required to obtain a Residential Fire Alarm Technician (RAL) license?

A. Passing the same exams as an FAL.
B. No training or exam at all.
C. Completing a State Fire Marshal‑approved residential fire alarm training course (no state exam). ✓
D. Holding NICET Level IV.

RAL licensees complete an approved residential training course and do not take a state exam. Their work is limited to one‑ and two‑family residential systems.

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Which license allows monitoring of fire alarms, but not installation or servicing?

A. Fire Alarm Planning Superintendent (APS).
B. Fire Alarm Technician (FAL).
C. Fire Alarm Monitoring Technician (AMT). ✓
D. Residential Fire Alarm Superintendent (RAS).

An AMT license is restricted to performing monitoring duties (typically in a central station) and does not authorize installing or servicing systems in the field.

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Which situation is grounds for suspension or revocation of a fire alarm license/registration?

A. Minor paperwork mistake on an application.
B. Changing employers.
C. Violating Chapter 6002 or the Fire Alarm Rules, or misrepresenting services to customers. ✓
D. Failing a single job interview.

The State Fire Marshal can discipline licensees and firms for violating statutes/rules, fraud, or misrepresentation, including unlicensed work or serious code violations.

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After revocation, how long must a person or firm wait before reapplying for a new license or registration?

A. They can reapply immediately.
B. 6 months from the revocation date.
C. At least 1 year from the effective date of revocation, with a showing of cause at a hearing. ✓
D. Revocation is permanent.

Following a revocation, the individual or firm must wait at least one year and then demonstrate to the State Fire Marshal why they should be granted a new license or registration.

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What is the criminal penalty for performing regulated fire alarm work without required licensing/registration?

A. Fine only, no criminal classification.
B. Class C misdemeanor.
C. Class B misdemeanor. ✓
D. State jail felony.

Performing certain regulated fire alarm activities without proper credentials is a Class B misdemeanor, which can include fines and possible jail time.

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Texas law generally prohibits use of fire alarm devices or systems that are not:

A. Battery-operated.
B. Approved by the local fire chief.
C. Listed or labeled by a nationally recognized testing laboratory. ✓
D. Manufactured in Texas.

Devices must be listed/labeled by recognized testing labs (e.g., UL) for fire alarm use. Installing unlisted or non‑approved devices is prohibited.

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After completing a new installation or modification of a fire alarm system, what must the licensed installer do before leaving?

A. Call the State Fire Marshal for immediate inspection.
B. Affix a White “Installation Record” label to the control panel with all required information. ✓
C. Attach a Yellow label to the panel.
D. Do nothing if the system appears to work.

For new or modified systems, the installer must complete and attach a white Installation label inside the control panel (or approved location), documenting firm, license, date, and planner.

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After routine service/maintenance with no outstanding deficiencies, which label is required?

A. No label is required.
B. A Yellow label.
C. A White Service label documenting the date and work performed. ✓
D. Change the original installation label’s color.

Any service, maintenance, or testing requires a white Service label to be filled out and affixed at the control panel, documenting what was done and by whom.

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What does a Yellow label on a fire alarm system mean?

A. System is fully compliant.
B. Brand‑new installation.
C. System has deficiencies, is not fully code‑compliant, and needs corrective action. ✓
D. System is completely nonfunctional.

A Yellow tag indicates one or more non‑critical code deficiencies or maintenance issues; the system still operates but needs correction to fully comply.

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When should a Red label be applied to a fire alarm system?

A. After every new installation.
B. For minor violations that don’t affect operation.
C. When the system (or a portion of it) is inoperable, has a significant fault, or is otherwise impaired from normal operation. ✓
D. Only when ordered by the fire marshal.

A Red tag is used for serious conditions—such as an inoperable or critically impaired system—where normal fire alarm operation is not assured.

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After placing a Yellow label on a system, what notification is required?

A. None.
B. Notify the State Fire Marshal within 24 hours by phone.
C. Notify the building owner/representative and the local AHJ in writing within 5 business days. ✓
D. Notify building tenants only.

For Yellow tags, the company must send written notice within 5 business days to the owner (or representative) and the AHJ describing the deficiencies.

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For a completely inoperable Red‑tagged system, what immediate notification is required?

A. Written notice within 30 days.
B. No action is required beyond the tag.
C. Immediate oral notice to owner/occupant and AHJ, followed by written notice by the next business day. ✓
D. Only an entry in the maintenance log.

When a system is completely inoperable, the technician must immediately contact the owner/occupant and AHJ (phone or in person), then follow up with written notice by the next business day.

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Once all deficiencies causing a Yellow tag are corrected, what should be done with the Yellow label?

A. Leave it on permanently as a record.
B. Owner may remove it anytime.
C. A licensed firm (or authority) may remove it, attach a Service label, and notify the AHJ in writing within 5 business days of removal. ✓
D. Recolor it green to show compliance.

When corrections are complete, the Yellow tag is removed by a licensed company or authority, a Service label is applied documenting the fix, and the AHJ is notified in writing.

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After a Red‑tagged system has been repaired and returned to normal, what happens to the Red label?

A. It must stay on the system forever.
B. The owner can remove it at will.
C. A licensed firm (or authority) may remove it once the impairment is corrected, apply a Service label, and notify the AHJ within 5 business days. ✓
D. It changes to a Yellow tag automatically.

Once a serious impairment is corrected, the Red tag is removed, a Service tag documents the repair, and the AHJ is notified in writing that the Red tag has been cleared.

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How long must a Fire Alarm Service label remain on the system?

A. Until the next service visit.
B. At least 2 years. ✓
C. 30 days.
D. Permanently.

Service labels must stay in place for a minimum of two years, providing a record of recent repairs and maintenance for inspectors and technicians.

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What color is the Inspection/Test label, and how long must it remain on the panel?

A. Green; 1 year.
B. Blue; at least 5 years. ✓
C. White; indefinitely.
D. Red; removed at the next inspection.

Blue Inspection/Test labels are used for periodic system inspections and must remain on the system for at least five years to document inspection history.

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After a routine inspection/test with no deficiencies, what labels are required?

A. No label is needed if everything passes.
B. Only a Yellow label.
C. A Blue Inspection/Test label, and if any service work was also done, a White Service label. ✓
D. Only the original Installation label.

Even with no problems found, the technician must attach a Blue Inspection/Test label, and if any service was performed (e.g., battery replacement), a White Service label is also required.

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While working, what must a licensed fire alarm technician be prepared to do?

A. Carry a copy of NFPA 72 at all times.
B. Show proof of their fire alarm license upon request. ✓
C. Show their Social Security card.
D. Work anonymously without identification.

Technicians must carry and present their license ID when performing fire alarm work to verify they are properly licensed.

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If a registered firm hires or terminates a licensed employee, what must the firm do?

A. Nothing; state records update automatically.
B. Notify all customers.
C. Notify the State Fire Marshal’s Office of the hire/termination within 14 days. ✓
D. Pay a transfer bond.

Firms must inform the SFMO within 14 days whenever a licensee is hired or leaves so that state records show who is associated with the company.

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If a licensed technician changes employers, name, or mailing address, what must they do?

A. Wait until renewal time to update.
B. Retake their licensing exam.
C. Notify the State Fire Marshal in writing and obtain a revised license within 14 days, paying the required fee. ✓
D. Only tell their new employer.

The individual licensee must update the SFMO within 14 days and obtain an updated license card that reflects new employment or personal information.

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What can a Residential Fire Alarm Superintendent (RAS) do under their license?

A. Work on any high‑rise commercial fire alarm system.
B. Only install battery-operated smoke alarms.
C. Plan, install, certify, inspect, service, and monitor fire alarm systems in one‑ and two‑family dwellings and also perform FAL duties. ✓
D. Install fire sprinklers.

An RAS can perform planning, installation, and certification of residential fire alarm systems in one‑ and two‑family dwellings and can also act as a Fire Alarm Technician, but is limited to the residential scope.

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Which is a requirement for obtaining a Fire Alarm Planning Superintendent (APS) license?

A. Only passing TFM12.
B. Paying the fee with no exam.
C. Passing TFM11 and having ESA Level III Fire Alarm, NICET Level III (or higher), or a Texas PE license. ✓
D. Holding a fire inspector license.

APS applicants must pass the statutes and rules exam and also demonstrate advanced technical competency through a high‑level national certification or professional engineer license.

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Can a company qualify for an ACR if the only licensed person it employs is a Residential Fire Alarm Technician (RAL)?

A. Yes, an RAL is sufficient.
B. No, a firm cannot be registered if it only has an RAL licensee. ✓
C. Yes, but only for commercial projects.
D. Yes, if the RAL also passes TFM12.

By rule, an RAL alone cannot qualify a firm for registration; the company must employ at least an FAL, APS, or RAS to obtain an ACR.

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Who enforces fire alarm statutes and rules in Texas, and what can they do?

A. The local police; they write traffic tickets.
B. The city mayor; they jail violators without due process.
C. The State Fire Marshal (TDI); they can investigate, issue notices, suspend/revoke licenses, issue cease‑and‑desist orders, assess penalties, and require restitution. ✓
D. The Fire Alarm Association; it can only blacklist non‑members.

The State Fire Marshal’s Office enforces Chapter 6002 and related rules, with authority to investigate complaints, take administrative action, and refer criminal violations.

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What can a Texas municipality or county NOT require from a state‑licensed fire alarm company?

A. That installations comply with local building code.
B. That the company obtain local permits.
C. That safety standards exceed state minimums.
D. That the company obtain a separate local license or pay extra city licensing/franchise fees. ✓

State law preempts local licensing of fire alarm contractors. Cities may require permits and enforce codes but cannot require extra local licenses or franchise fees beyond the state’s ACR.

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Which best describes the scope of work allowed by a Fire Alarm Technician (FAL) license?

A. Full design and planning for all systems with no other qualifications.
B. Monitoring only, no installation.
C. Selling, installing, repairing, inspecting, testing, certifying, and monitoring systems, but not planning/designing new systems (planning is done by APS, RAS, or PE). ✓
D. Any electrical work allowed to an electrician.

FALs can perform almost all field work on fire alarm systems except system planning/design, which must be done by a qualified APS/RAS or engineer. TFM12 – Technical Fire Alarm Codes & Practices (Questions 41–100)

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According to NFPA 72, what is the maximum travel distance to a manual fire alarm pull station?

A. 100 feet.
B. 200 feet. ✓
C. 300 feet.
D. Unlimited, if one is at each exit.

NFPA 72 requires that occupants never have to travel more than 200 feet to reach a manual pull station on a given floor.

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At what mounting height should manual fire alarm pull stations be installed?

A. 60–72 inches above the floor.
B. 42–48 inches from finished floor to the operable part. ✓
C. At least 6 feet high for visibility.
D. Near the ceiling.

Pull stations must be within 42–48 inches above finished floor to remain accessible, including to people using wheelchairs.

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What is the nominal maximum spacing for spot‑type smoke detectors on a smooth ceiling under NFPA 72?

A. 15 feet.
B. 30 feet (about 900 ft² per detector). ✓
C. 50 feet.
D. No maximum.

Standard spacing for spot‑type smoke detectors is 30 ft on center, which creates about 900 square feet of coverage under ideal conditions.

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If a smoke detector is installed on a wall, how far below the ceiling should it be placed?

A. Touching the ceiling line.
B. Between 4 and 12 inches down from the ceiling. ✓
C. At least 2 feet down from the ceiling.
D. Midway between floor and ceiling.

Wall‑mounted detectors should have the top of the detector 4–12 inches below the ceiling to avoid the dead air space right at the ceiling.

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Which smoke detector type responds best to slow, smoldering fires with heavy visible smoke?

A. Ionization detector.
B. Photoelectric detector. ✓
C. Heat detector.
D. Flame detector.

Photoelectric detectors are more sensitive to larger smoke particles typical of smoldering fires, making them quicker in that scenario.

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Ionization smoke detectors are typically more responsive to which kind of fire?

A. Slow, smoldering upholstery fires.
B. Fast‑flaming fires with small, invisible particles (e.g., paper or grease fires). ✓
C. Very smoky, low‑heat fires.
D. Electrical smoldering in conduits only.

Ionization detectors are generally faster for fast‑flaming fires that produce tiny combustion particles, even if visible smoke isn’t heavy yet.

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What minimum sound level does NFPA 72 require at the pillow in sleeping areas?

A. 60 dBA.
B. 75 dBA at the pillow (or 15 dB above ambient, whichever is greater). ✓
C. 100 dBA at the door.
D. No specific requirement.

Sleeping areas must receive at least 75 dBA at the pillow, and at least 15 dB above average ambient, to reliably wake occupants.

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How often must waterflow alarm devices (e.g., sprinkler waterflow switches) be tested per NFPA 25?

A. Monthly.
B. Quarterly (every 3 months). ✓
C. Annually.
D. Every 5 years.

NFPA 25 requires quarterly testing of mechanical waterflow alarm devices, typically by operating the inspector’s test connection.

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How often must supervised sprinkler valve tamper switches be tested per NFPA 25?

A. Monthly.
B. Quarterly.
C. Semi‑annually (every 6 months). ✓
D. Annually.

Tamper switches for control valves must be tested twice a year to ensure they will signal if a sprinkler control valve is closed.

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What is the minimum frequency for a complete inspection and functional test of a fire alarm system under NFPA 72?

A. Monthly.
B. Every 3 years.
C. Annually (once per year). ✓
D. Only when requested by the AHJ.

NFPA 72 calls for a full system inspection and test at least annually, though some components have more frequent requirements.

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In a sprinklered building, which sprinkler components must be monitored by the fire alarm system?

A. All individual sprinkler heads.
B. All pressure gauges.
C. The waterflow switch and control valve tamper switches. ✓
D. Pipe hangers.

Fire alarm panels must monitor waterflow (alarm) and valve tamper switches (supervisory) to detect sprinkler activation and closed valves.

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Which NFPA standard covers inspection, testing, and maintenance of water‑based fire protection systems?

A. NFPA 72.
B. NFPA 70.
C. NFPA 25. ✓
D. NFPA 101.

NFPA 25 specifically addresses ITM for water‑based systems like sprinklers, standpipes, and related alarm devices.

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Which code is the National Electrical Code (NEC) governing fire alarm wiring methods?

A. NFPA 72.
B. NFPA 70. ✓
C. NFPA 90A.
D. UL 864.

NFPA 70 is the NEC, and Article 760 contains the rules for fire alarm circuit wiring.

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What does UL 827 cover?

A. Household smoke alarms.
B. Fire alarm control unit construction.
C. Central station alarm services and monitoring station requirements. ✓
D. Sprinkler design.

UL 827 is the standard for Central Station Alarm Services, including construction and operation of monitoring centers.

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What is the function of an end‑of‑line (EOL) resistor in a fire alarm circuit?

A. Boost signal to the last device.
B. Provide supervision so the panel can detect an open circuit as a trouble. ✓
C. Prevent voltage from reaching devices.
D. Automatically isolate a short circuit.

The EOL resistor completes the supervised loop on Class B circuits so the panel can detect opens and display a trouble condition.

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On a fire alarm panel, what does a “trouble” signal indicate?

A. A fire has been detected.
B. Routine testing is in progress.
C. A fault or off‑normal condition (wiring, device, or power problem) is present. ✓
D. A monitored sprinkler valve is closed.

A trouble signal means something is wrong with the system—open circuit, ground fault, failed device, power loss, etc.—that could affect performance.

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What is a key advantage of an addressable fire alarm system compared to a conventional one?

A. It requires no wiring.
B. It is always cheaper.
C. The panel can identify the exact device in alarm or trouble by address. ✓
D. It never uses resistors or modules.

Addressable systems give point‑specific information for alarms and troubles, greatly improving location accuracy and troubleshooting.

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Before testing devices that will activate alarms, what should a technician do?

A. Bypass the panel electronics.
B. Disable all sprinklers.
C. Notify the monitoring center and/or fire department (per procedure) and inform building occupants. ✓
D. Nothing; just start testing.

Technicians must notify the central station and AHJ (if applicable) and building occupants before testing to prevent unwanted dispatches and panic.

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During an annual test, batteries fail the load test and the panel shows “Battery Trouble.” What should be done?

A. Ignore it if AC power is on.
B. Log it only.
C. Treat it as a serious impairment, tag the system accordingly (often Red), and replace the batteries. ✓
D. Turn off the system until new batteries arrive.

Failed standby batteries mean the system may not work in a power outage, so this is a serious deficiency requiring prompt repair and proper tagging.

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Which NFPA standard covers design and installation of automatic sprinkler systems?

A. NFPA 72.
B. NFPA 13. ✓
C. NFPA 20.
D. NFPA 101.

NFPA 13 is the main standard for sprinkler system design and installation, including locations of waterflow and valve devices interfaced with alarms.

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Under NFPA 90A, what should happen when a duct smoke detector senses smoke in an HVAC system?

A. It only sounds interior horns.
B. It discharges sprinklers.
C. It shuts down the associated air handling unit (and may send a supervisory/alarm signal). ✓
D. Nothing specific is required.

Duct detectors are primarily used to shut down fans and close dampers to prevent smoke spread through the HVAC system.

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What is the purpose of a monitor module in an addressable fire alarm system?

A. To power notification appliances.
B. To boost signal along long wire runs.
C. To supervise and monitor a contact or circuit (e.g., flow switch, conventional devices). ✓
D. To isolate a short on the SLC loop.

A monitor (input) module connects non‑addressable contacts or circuits to the addressable loop, letting the panel supervise and read their status as addressable points.

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Which is an example of a supervisory signal?

A. A manual pull station operated.
B. A smoke detector in alarm.
C. A sprinkler control valve tamper switch indicating a valve has been closed. ✓
D. A ground fault detected on a circuit.

A supervisory condition warns that a fire protection system (such as sprinklers) is not in its normal ready state—like when a control valve is shut.

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What happens if a wire opens (breaks) on a Class B initiating device circuit?

A. The circuit automatically self‑heals.
B. All devices still work normally.
C. Devices beyond the break stop working and the panel shows a trouble. ✓
D. The panel goes into alarm.

In a Class B circuit, an open cuts off all devices beyond the break and causes the panel to lose the EOL resistor, resulting in a trouble condition.

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What is a defining feature of a Class A circuit compared to Class B?

A. It is wireless.
B. It has no end‑of‑line device.
C. It has a return path back to the panel so one break will not prevent devices from operating. ✓
D. Any single break causes an immediate alarm.

Class A wiring loops out and back to the panel, so a single break can be isolated and the circuit can still communicate with all devices from the other direction.

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All fire alarm system equipment installed must be:

A. Painted red.
B. Powered by a UPS.
C. Listed or approved for fire alarm use by a recognized testing laboratory. ✓
D. Made by the same manufacturer.

Equipment must be listed/approved for fire alarm service (e.g., UL‑listed), ensuring it meets safety and performance standards.

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For a typical commercial fire alarm system (non‑voice), how long must secondary power (batteries) support the system?

A. 4 hours standby, 15 minutes alarm.
B. 24 hours standby, then 5 minutes alarm. ✓
C. 8 hours standby, 8 hours alarm.
D. Until the next business day.

NFPA 72 requires 24 hours of standby plus 5 minutes in full alarm for most protected premises systems.

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What is a “ground fault” trouble generally caused by, and what does it do?

A. Low battery; puts system into alarm.
B. Device in alarm; shuts off panel.
C. Unwanted connection between a conductor and ground, causing a trouble and possible interference. ✓
D. Lightning; automatically suppresses fires.

A ground fault occurs when a circuit conductor unintentionally contacts ground, which can cause strange behavior and is reported as a trouble.

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Why must fire alarm wiring be separated from higher voltage wiring unless properly rated/barriered?

A. For insurance paperwork.
B. To keep colors from mixing.
C. To prevent electrical interference and accidental high‑voltage faults from damaging PLFA circuits. ✓
D. To reduce conduit cost.

NEC rules require separation so high‑voltage circuits cannot induce voltage or fault current onto power‑limited fire alarm circuits.

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What is the purpose of a control relay module in a fire alarm system?

A. To detect smoke in large spaces.
B. To supervise NACs.
C. To activate or shut down external equipment such as elevators, HVAC fans, or door holders. ✓
D. To convert AC to DC.

Control relay modules interface the fire alarm panel with building systems, turning things on/off in response to alarm conditions (elevator recall, door release, HVAC shutdown, etc.).

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In which type of building would a voice evacuation fire alarm system most likely be required?

A. Small convenience store.
B. Single‑family home.
C. High‑rise office building or large assembly occupancy (e.g., big theater). ✓
D. Small storage shed.

Codes often require emergency voice/alarm communication systems in high‑rise buildings and large assembly occupancies to manage complex evacuations.

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For a voice evacuation fire alarm system, how long must the batteries support full alarm?

A. 5 minutes.
B. 15 minutes after 24 hours standby. ✓
C. 30 minutes standby plus 5 minutes alarm.
D. Same as non‑voice: 5 minutes.

Voice systems must operate for 24 hours in standby plus at least 15 minutes in full alarm due to the extended messaging needed.

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Why are low‑frequency (around 520 Hz) sounders required in many sleeping areas?

A. They are cheaper.
B. They are less annoying.
C. They are more effective at waking sleeping people, especially those with mild hearing loss. ✓
D. They meet radio interference rules.

Studies showed that 520 Hz low‑frequency tones are better at awakening sleepers, so codes now require them in many sleeping rooms.

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What device is used on an addressable SLC to prevent a single short from disabling the entire loop?

A. End‑of‑line relay.
B. Repeater module.
C. Isolation (fault isolator) module installed at intervals. ✓
D. Surge suppressor.

Fault isolator modules automatically open around a short‑circuited section, leaving the rest of the loop operational.

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If a building’s fire alarm system is out of service for an extended period, what is one recommended interim life‑safety measure?

A. Shut the building down.
B. Turn off power to everything.
C. Establish a fire watch with trained personnel who patrol and can manually alert occupants and the fire department. ✓
D. Open every window.

A fire watch uses designated personnel to look for signs of fire when automatic detection/suppression is unavailable.

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After testing/servicing a fire alarm system, what documentation should be provided?

A. None if everything is normal.
B. Only a verbal report.
C. A written inspection/test report listing devices tested, results, deficiencies, and tags, given to the owner (and AHJ if required). ✓
D. Only updated programming notes.

A proper written test report documents what was tested, what passed/failed, actions taken, and any tags applied.

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Which standards establish requirements for central station fire alarm monitoring facilities?

A. NFPA 72 (supervising stations chapter) and UL 827. ✓
B. OSHA rules.
C. The alarm company’s internal policy.
D. Any local building department memo.

NFPA 72 and UL 827 define technical and operational requirements for supervising station (central station) facilities.

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How must the primary 120 VAC circuit for a fire alarm control unit be arranged?

A. On the same breaker as hallway lighting.
B. On a dedicated branch circuit, labeled “FIRE ALARM,” with a lock‑on device to prevent accidental shutoff. ✓
C. On a wall switch for convenience.
D. Through a panel relay.

The panel’s AC supply must be a dedicated, clearly marked, and secured breaker so it isn’t accidentally turned off.

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What is a common correct method to functionally test smoke detectors during annual inspections?

A. Pressing the panel reset button.
B. Heating them with a lighter.
C. Using canned aerosol smoke or manufacturer‑approved smoke to activate the detector sensor. ✓
D. Blowing air at them.

Proper testing involves introducing test smoke (per manufacturer instructions) so the detector’s sensing chamber is actually tested.

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What are the three general categories of fire alarm system signals?

A. Input, Output, Standby.
B. High, Medium, Low.
C. Alarm, Trouble, Supervisory. ✓
D. Fire, Burglar, Medical.

Fire alarm panels differentiate Alarm (emergency), Trouble (system fault), and Supervisory (off‑normal protection system condition).

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What does a “pre‑signal” feature do in a fire alarm system?

A. Automatically resets alarms after 30 seconds.
B. Signals sprinklers to pre‑charge water.
C. Delays general occupant notification until staff verify the alarm at a constantly attended location. ✓
D. Sends a text message to the owner only.

A pre‑signal system first alerts staff at a control point; they verify conditions before the system goes into full general alarm, when permitted by the AHJ.

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In a sprinkler system, what device initiates a fire alarm when water begins to flow?

A. Tamper switch.
B. Pressure gauge.
C. Waterflow switch on the sprinkler riser or piping. ✓
D. Post indicator valve.

A waterflow switch senses sustained water movement in the sprinkler piping and sends an alarm input to the panel.

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Why are voltage drop calculations important for notification appliance circuits (NACs)?

A. To size the electrical room.
B. To determine breaker size.
C. To ensure the last device still receives enough voltage/current to meet its listed output. ✓
D. Only for addressable loops.

Long wire runs and many appliances cause voltage drop; designers must verify that all appliances, including the last one, have adequate voltage to operate properly.

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In a high‑rise with speakers and strobes, where only the fire floor and adjacent floors evacuate while others receive an alert, what type of system is used?

A. Conventional coded system.
B. Two‑stage or staged evacuation system. ✓
C. Fault‑tolerant loop.
D. Non‑synchronous strobe system.

Staged (two‑stage) evacuation allows selective evacuation of certain zones while others receive an alert/standby signal.

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Which fire alarm component detects heat rather than smoke or flame?

A. Photoelectric detector.
B. Beam detector.
C. Heat detector. ✓
D. UV/IR detector.

Heat detectors respond when temperature reaches a set point or rises rapidly; they do not sense smoke particles.

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Traditionally, how many telephone lines or equivalent communication paths are required for a DACT reporting to a central station?

A. One phone line.
B. Two independent phone lines or equivalent paths. ✓
C. Three separate lines.
D. None; DACTs use radio only.

Classic DACT setups use two independent phone lines (or equivalent dual paths) for redundancy in transmitting signals.

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When fire alarm cables are run in a ceiling used as a return air plenum and not in conduit, what cable type is required?

A. Any low‑voltage cable.
B. PVC‑jacketed only.
C. Plenum‑rated fire alarm cable (FPLP). ✓
D. Coaxial TV cable.

Exposed wiring in plenums must be plenum‑rated (FPLP) or in conduit due to stricter smoke and flame spread requirements.

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Upon system completion, what must be provided to the owner per NFPA 72 and Texas rules?

A. Nothing; only the keys to the panel.
B. A bill of materials.
C. Record (as‑built) drawings and system operation and maintenance manuals. ✓
D. Only a list of device addresses.

The owner or representative must receive as‑built drawings and operation/maintenance manuals reflecting the installed system.

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Where are fire alarm system plans and manuals NOT allowed to be stored under Texas rules?

A. In the maintenance office.
B. With the monitoring company.
C. Inside the fire alarm control panel. ✓
D. In a document tube near the panel.

Documents must not be stuffed inside the control unit; they should be stored nearby but outside the panel.

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What is the primary difference between a local fire alarm system and a monitored system?

A. Local uses bells; monitored uses speakers.
B. Local uses wireless; monitored uses hardwired.
C. Local only sounds on site; monitored also transmits signals to a remote/central station for fire department notification. ✓
D. They are identical.

A local system notifies occupants only; a monitored system sends signals offsite so responders can be dispatched automatically.

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What does “alarm verification” do for smoke detectors?

A. Confirms with the fire department that there is a fire.
B. Requires two detectors to activate before any alarm.
C. Introduces a short delay to reset and re‑check a detector, only going into alarm if the condition persists. ✓
D. Sends a text to maintenance first.

Alarm verification resets and re‑samples a detector within a limited time (typically up to 60 seconds) to reduce nuisance alarms.

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What is typically installed in elevator lobbies/machine rooms to cause elevator recall?

A. Heat detectors only.
B. Manual pulls in elevator cars.
C. Smoke detectors that, when activated, recall elevators to a designated floor (Phase I). ✓
D. Duct detectors in elevator cab ceilings.

Smoke detectors associated with elevators trigger Phase I recall, bringing cars to a safe landing and removing them from normal service.

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What is the purpose of a “fire watch” when systems are impaired?

A. To delay alarm reporting.
B. To repair the system faster.
C. To provide continuous human patrol to look for fire and manually initiate evacuation/911. ✓
D. To observe a fire for investigation.

A fire watch is human surveillance used when automatic fire protection is temporarily out of service.

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What is one acceptable way to check a smoke detector’s sensitivity?

A. See if the LED changes color.
B. Use a magnet only.
C. Use calibrated test equipment or built‑in sensitivity features per the manufacturer. ✓
D. Replace the detector every year instead of testing.

Sensitivity must be confirmed using calibrated methods or built‑in diagnostics, verifying that the detector still responds within its listed range.

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In a hospital or high‑rise, what is the feature called that evacuates only certain zones while others receive alert signals?

A. Cross‑zoning.
B. One‑stage alarm.
C. Selective or staged (zoned) evacuation, often using a voice system. ✓
D. Alarm verification.

Staged/zoned evacuation allows targeted evacuation by area instead of clearing the entire building at once.

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Which standards address integration of smoke control systems (fans/dampers) with fire alarm?

A. NFPA 10 only.
B. NFPA 25 only.
C. NFPA 90A and NFPA 92, together with NFPA 72 interface requirements. ✓
D. NFPA 101 only.

NFPA 90A and NFPA 92 describe HVAC and smoke control systems, while NFPA 72 governs their interface with the fire alarm system.

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What is the purpose of an annunciator in a fire alarm system?

A. To extinguish fires.
B. To power the panel.
C. To remotely display system status and sometimes allow limited control (e.g., acknowledge, silence, reset). ✓
D. To increase horn loudness.

An annunciator provides remote indication of alarms, troubles, and supervisory signals, often at building entrances or fire command centers.

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What is “cross‑zoning” in fire detection?

A. Using one detector for two zones.
B. Having two detectors or zones activate before releasing suppression. ✓
C. Wiring different buildings into one panel.
D. Crossing notification and initiating circuits.

Cross‑zoning requires two separate detection inputs to activate before certain actions (like clean agent release) occur, reducing the chance of false discharge.

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Under NFPA 72, what is the maximum allowed time for initiating devices to cause occupant notification (assuming no approved sequencing)?

A. Instantaneous only.
B. Generally 10 seconds or less. ✓
C. 60 seconds.
D. 5 minutes.

NFPA 72 expects that activation of an initiating device will result in notification within about 10 seconds, barring special arrangements like alarm verification or pre‑signal.

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If the panel shows “System Normal” but a known device fails to activate the system during testing, what should the technician do?

A. Assume everything is fine.
B. Disable that zone and ignore it.
C. Investigate the device and its wiring, repair or replace as needed, and verify proper operation. ✓
D. Just reset the panel repeatedly.

Even with “System Normal,” a non‑working device is unacceptable; the technician must troubleshoot the field device, wiring, and programming until it responds correctly.

Approved (583)

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Battery sizing sums:

Standby plus alarm loads over their required durations

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Ground faults should:

Be annunciated and located for repair

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Manual pull station placement is typically:

On paths of egress near exit doors at accessible height

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Record retention for "ITM" generally requires:

Retain until next test at minimum and per local rules

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Remote annunciators should be located:

Near main entrance or fire command location

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Elevator recall annunciation should appear:

At the "FACU" or annunciator per the sequence

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Visible notification candela selection depends on:

Room size and mounting per listed tables

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Mixing power limited and non power limited conductors requires:

Separation or listed barriers per code and listing

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Trouble signals indicate:

A fault that may impair system operation

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For Texas projects, always verify:

Local adoption and amendments with the "AHJ" before design and submittal